Which of the two expresses the {-pu'} better ?
lets say I write: {pumpu' 'obmaQ}. which of the following two sentences, expresses the {-pu'} better ? a. the axe fell b. the axe has fallen qunnoH jan puqloD
On 11/24/2016 3:38 AM, mayqel qunenoS wrote:
lets say I write: {pumpu' 'obmaQ}.
which of the following two sentences, expresses the {-pu'} better ?
a. the axe fell b. the axe has fallen
Either. It depends on the style of your writing and which sounds better to your ear. It depends on whether you're writing in the present or past tenses. -- SuStel http://trimboli.name
SuStel:
It depends on whether you're writing in the present or past tenses
This means that the "the axe fell" is the meaning if I'm writing in the present tense (describing something which happened today), and the "the axe has fallen" is the meaning if I'm writing in the past tense (describing something which happened e.g. yesterday) ? qunnoH ghoghwIj HablI'vo' vIngeHta' On 24 Nov 2016 4:49 pm, "SuStel" <sustel@trimboli.name> wrote:
On 11/24/2016 3:38 AM, mayqel qunenoS wrote:
lets say I write: {pumpu' 'obmaQ}.
which of the following two sentences, expresses the {-pu'} better ?
a. the axe fell b. the axe has fallen
Either. It depends on the style of your writing and which sounds better to your ear. It depends on whether you're writing in the present or past tenses.
-- SuStel http://trimboli.name
_______________________________________________ tlhIngan-Hol mailing list tlhIngan-Hol@lists.kli.org http://lists.kli.org/listinfo.cgi/tlhingan-hol-kli.org
On 11/24/2016 10:09 AM, mayqel qunenoS wrote:
SuStel:
It depends on whether you're writing in the present or past tenses
This means that the "the axe fell" is the meaning if I'm writing in the present tense (describing something which happened today), and the "the axe has fallen" is the meaning if I'm writing in the past tense (describing something which happened e.g. yesterday) ?
No. There is no one, absolutely correct translation. This isn't computer programming. You tell me: what is the difference between "the axe fell" and "the axe has fallen"? -- SuStel http://trimboli.name
SuStel:
You tell me: what is the difference between "the axe fell" and "the axe has fallen"?
I can't think of any difference between them. The only thing I can think of, is that the "the axe has fallen", perhaps sounds a little more "vague". But that aside, I agree that there is no "detectable" difference between them. qunnoH jan puqloD On Thu, Nov 24, 2016 at 5:44 PM, SuStel <sustel@trimboli.name> wrote:
On 11/24/2016 10:09 AM, mayqel qunenoS wrote:
SuStel:
It depends on whether you're writing in the present or past tenses
This means that the "the axe fell" is the meaning if I'm writing in the present tense (describing something which happened today), and the "the axe has fallen" is the meaning if I'm writing in the past tense (describing something which happened e.g. yesterday) ?
No. There is no one, absolutely correct translation. This isn't computer programming.
You tell me: what is the difference between "the axe fell" and "the axe has fallen"?
-- SuStel http://trimboli.name
_______________________________________________ tlhIngan-Hol mailing list tlhIngan-Hol@lists.kli.org http://lists.kli.org/listinfo.cgi/tlhingan-hol-kli.org
On 11/24/2016 1:10 PM, mayqel qunenoS wrote:
SuStel:
You tell me: what is the difference between "the axe fell" and "the axe has fallen"? I can't think of any difference between them. The only thing I can think of, is that the "the axe has fallen", perhaps sounds a little more "vague". But that aside, I agree that there is no "detectable" difference between them.
Exactly. The difference is purely grammatical. "The axe fell" is simple past tense; "the axe has fallen" is present perfect tense. Klingon doesn't have simple past tense or present perfect tense, so there's little point in asking which is the better translation. Use whichever translation is most appropriate for what you're saying or writing. Sometimes either one will do. -- SuStel http://trimboli.name
participants (2)
-
mayqel qunenoS -
SuStel