SuStel:
You tell me: what is the difference between "the axe fell" and "the axe has fallen"?
I can't think of any difference between them. The only thing I can think of, is that the "the axe has fallen", perhaps sounds a little more "vague". But that aside, I agree that there is no "detectable" difference between them. qunnoH jan puqloD On Thu, Nov 24, 2016 at 5:44 PM, SuStel <sustel@trimboli.name> wrote:
On 11/24/2016 10:09 AM, mayqel qunenoS wrote:
SuStel:
It depends on whether you're writing in the present or past tenses
This means that the "the axe fell" is the meaning if I'm writing in the present tense (describing something which happened today), and the "the axe has fallen" is the meaning if I'm writing in the past tense (describing something which happened e.g. yesterday) ?
No. There is no one, absolutely correct translation. This isn't computer programming.
You tell me: what is the difference between "the axe fell" and "the axe has fallen"?
-- SuStel http://trimboli.name
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