Ok, charghwI', thanks for sharing your thoughts. I decided that until we get any further clarification (yeah right, as if that's ever gonna happen..), I'll be applying to {tlheD} too all this crap which goes for {mej} regarding its' use with or without the {-vo'}. And the reason I came to this decision is because that's how I like it. Charming isn't it? Also, reading the original post, I noticed this Ca'Non sentence: {lojmItmeyvo’ Damejta’} This sentence shows that a {-vo'}ed noun *can* be the object of a verb, something which -for reasons I don't know- I was under the impression that wasn't possible. Perhaps because I could never come up with an example where it would be necessary for a {-vo'}ed noun to be the object of a verb. Who knows? Go figure. -- Dana'an https://sacredtextsinklingon.wordpress.com/ Ζεὺς ἦν, Ζεὺς ἐστίν, Ζεὺς ἔσσεται· ὦ μεγάλε Ζεῦ