I wanted to discuss some things after I would have finished klingonska, but I noticed something in a voragh sentence, which puzzled me greatly ; Before I start, I will make a trick question : As far as the behavior of adverbs is concerned, they are all the same, right ? Is there a difference between {tlhoy} and {chaq} ? So, hold that thought, and while you're holding that thought, let us read together the following excerpt provided by 'oqranD : matlh juppu' mu'mey, from HolQeD 8-3, pages 2-4 http://klingonska.org/canon/1999-09-holqed-08-3.txt -----START----- 2. too much The adverbial {tlhoy} means <overly, to an excessive degree>. It is used in such sentences as: {tlhoy jISop} I eat too much / I eat excessively {tlhoy bIQong} you sleep too much / you sleep excessively When {tlhoy} is used, it denotes that the action expressed by the verb ({Sop} <eat>, {Qong} <sleep>) is what is being overly done or done too much. Thus, the sentence: {tlhoy qagh vISop} I eat too much gagh / I eat gagh excessively / I overeat gagh expresses the notion that the eating is excessive, not that the amount of gagh is. (Note that although it is possible to say this, it is not something anybody would be likely to ever say). Similarly, {tlhoy yIHmey vIlegh} I see too many tribbles [[p.3]] means <I overly see tribbles> (perhaps this could be used if one meant something like "I see tribbles far too frequently and in far too many places"). To express the idea of "too much gagh" or "too many tribbles," the verb {'Iq} <be too many, be too much> is used adjectivally. For example: {yIHmey 'Iq vIlegh} I see too many tribbles {qagh 'Iq vISop} I eat too much gagh Sometimes, the word {law'qu'} <be very many> (formed from {law'} <be many> plus {-qu'}, the emphatic suffix) is translated "be too many." If the context is clear, this is acceptable, but if it is important to stress the idea of "overly many, overly much, more than there ought to be," {tlhoy} or {'Iq} is usually employed. -----END----- The way I process all this, is that the adverb refers to the verb of the sentence. So, now, let us look the sentence that the canon master provided for us at the "Disturbing irregularities" thread : chaq SoHvo' vay' vIje' vIneH [Maybe I'd like to buy something from you.] PK This sentence is a SAO, utilizing {neH} and of course omitting the {'e'}. So far so good. A SAO construction is two sentences. The sentence before the {'e'} and the sentence after it. Adverbs, time stamps and indirect objects which refer to the second sentence are placed just before the {'e'}, or just before the {neH}. After all this, I would expect in the voragh sentence the {chaq} to be placed just before the {vIneH}, in order to express the "maybe I'd like to buy". The way, it is given, I read "I want to perhaps buy something from you". Not "perhaps I'd like to buy something from you". Maybe the difference is insignificant, but I believe that in the strict sense of the rules, the {chaq} should be placed before the {vIneH}. mIv Hurgh qunnoq