SuStel, there is something I would like to ask you, with regards to nouns in apposition. At another thread we discussed the following: Aurelie:
yaSvaD qama'vaD taj nobmoH HoD jIH: If I saw this sentence without knowing the intented meaning, chances are I would understand, that the {yaSvaD} and {qama'vaD} > are nouns in apposition. So, I would eventually understand, that "the captain gave the knife for the officer and the prisoner". SuStel: I agree that apposition might be a strong interpretation, but the translation would be this: the captain makes the officer, the prisoner, give the knife. Apposition means the two noun phrases are equated with each other. They are not conjoined with an and. Here, with apposition, the officer is a prisoner. > If the captain made two separate people, an officer and a prisoner, give knives, the sentence would be yaSvaD qama'vaD je taj nobmoH HoD. By the way, watch out with your translation. The captain doesn't give the knife to an officer or a prisoner, he makes them give knives to someone unspecified or general.
So, now let me ask you.. Suppose I write the sentence: {Qo'noSDaq SoSlI' juHDaq qajatlh, latlh be' vImuSHa'} "At Qo'noS at your mother's house I told you, that I love another woman". Do you agree with the above translation, or is it, that due to the absence of a {je} after the {juHDaq}, the meaning becomes "at your mother's house which is Qo'noS I told you, that I love another woman" ? qunnoq