jIH:
If instead of {bIyIntaHvIS bIchul ’e’ Da’aghta’} we had {bIchul ’e’ Da’aghta’ bIyIntaHvIS}, would there be any difference? ghunchu'wI': There is certainly a difference. You have moved the dependent clause to a different sentence, applying it to {'aghta'} instead of {chul}.
Thanks for replying. I think I understand your comment, but I can't *feel* what the (considerable) difference between the two is. bIyIntaHvIS bIchul ’e’ Da’aghta’ while you were living you were wise; you displayed that bIchul ’e’ Da’aghta’ bIyIntaHvIS you were wise; while you were living you displayed that Meaning-wise I can't *feel* any significant difference. ghunchu'wI':
It also seems odd style to have a V- taHvIS providing context for a V-ta', but I suppose it works
I'm afraid I don't understand this. Why would that be odd? -- Dana'an https://sacredtextsinklingon.wordpress.com/ Ζεὺς ἦν, Ζεὺς ἐστίν, Ζεὺς ἔσσεται· ὦ μεγάλε Ζεῦ