24 Jun
2016
24 Jun
'16
7:58 a.m.
On 6/24/2016 10:49 AM, mayqel qunenoS wrote:
So, if I wrote :
puchpa'vaD loD vemmoHbe' be'. a woman doesn't wake up a man for the bathroom.
then, in this sentence, would the {puchpa'} be considered a beneficiary ?
You've /marked/ it as a beneficiary, so it is one, but I don't think it means what you want it to mean. The kind of /for/ you're using in the English is a purpose-/for/, not a beneficiary-/for./ Let me take out the negative from the sentence for a minute (to avoid a different problem): *puchpa' lo'meH loD, loD vemmoH be'*/a woman wakes up a man so he can use the bathroom./ -- SuStel http://trimboli.name