So, if I wrote :
puchpa'vaD loD vemmoHbe' be'.
a woman doesn't wake up a man for the bathroom.
then, in this sentence, would the {puchpa'} be considered a beneficiary ?
You've marked it as a beneficiary, so it is one, but I
don't think it means what you want it to mean. The kind of for
you're using in the English is a purpose-for, not a
beneficiary-for. Let me take out the negative from the
sentence for a minute (to avoid a different problem): puchpa'
lo'meH loD, loD vemmoH be' a woman wakes up a man so he
can use the bathroom.
-- SuStel http://trimboli.name