On 6/24/2016 10:49 AM, mayqel qunenoS wrote:
So, if I wrote :

puchpa'vaD loD vemmoHbe' be'.
a woman doesn't wake up a man for the bathroom.

then, in this sentence, would the {puchpa'} be considered a beneficiary ?

You've marked it as a beneficiary, so it is one, but I don't think it means what you want it to mean. The kind of for you're using in the English is a purpose-for, not a beneficiary-for. Let me take out the negative from the sentence for a minute (to avoid a different problem): puchpa' lo'meH loD, loD vemmoH be' a woman wakes up a man so he can use the bathroom.

-- 
SuStel
http://trimboli.name