Is there any evidence in canon of how a group composed of a mixture of speech-capable and non-speech-capable members is treated grammatically? As a simple example, if somebody asked you “puqpu' paqmey je Dalegh'a'?” would you answer (assuming you see all of them): a) chaH bIH je vIlegh b) chaH vIlegh 'ej bIH vIlegh je c) chaH vIlegh d) bIH vIlegh (a) and (b) obviously seem the safest, but in an Earth language where a group whose members have mixed grammatical gender resolves to a single grammatical gender (which might be different from the grammatical genders of its members), it would seem strange. If there’s any examples in canon of something like (c) or (d) happening, I’d be interested to know about them.
Daniel Dadap <daniel@dadap.net> schrieb am Di., 12. März 2019, 03:02:
Is there any evidence in canon of how a group composed of a mixture of speech-capable and non-speech-capable members is treated grammatically? As a simple example, if somebody asked you “puqpu' paqmey je Dalegh'a'?” would you answer (assuming you see all of them):
a) chaH bIH je vIlegh b) chaH vIlegh 'ej bIH vIlegh je c) chaH vIlegh d) bIH vIlegh
{DaH mararchuq / mayIntaHvIS / wa' Dol bIH qa''e' porgh'e' je} "We are now connected, / Spirit and body are one, / Until our time comes." (paq'batlh) Elsewhere, {qa'} is pluralised as {qa'pu'}. But it's in a grey area, in that it may be that {qa' porgh je} is a set expression. -- De'vID
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