Is there any evidence in canon of how a group composed of a mixture of speech-capable and non-speech-capable members is treated grammatically? As a simple example, if somebody asked you “puqpu' paqmey je Dalegh'a'?” would you answer (assuming you see all of them):
a) chaH bIH je vIlegh
b) chaH vIlegh 'ej bIH vIlegh je
c) chaH vIlegh
d) bIH vIlegh
{DaH mararchuq / mayIntaHvIS / wa' Dol bIH qa''e' porgh'e' je}
"We are now connected, / Spirit and body are one, / Until our time comes." (paq'batlh)
Elsewhere, {qa'} is pluralised as {qa'pu'}. But it's in a grey area, in that it may be that {qa' porgh je} is a set expression.
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De'vID