29 Jun
2021
29 Jun
'21
7:54 a.m.
I know that perhaps this is a ridiculous thing to ask, but I'll ask anyway, just to make certain. The only Ca'Non examples of the verb {ja'} which I know of, come from tkd and they are the following: {nuja'rup} "they are prepared to tell us" {qaja'pu' HIqaghQo'} or {HIqaghQo' qaja'pu'} "I told you not to interrupt me" In these Ca'Non examples the "prefix trick" way of use is employed (I don't know how else to describe it), i.e we don't have {maHvaD ja'rup}, and we don't have {SoHvaD jIja'pu' HIqaghQo'}/{HIqaghQo' SoHvaD jIja'pu'}. So, the thing I'm wondering is this.. Is it necessary that whenever we use the {ja'} we need to use it the "prefix trick" way? Can't we use it with the {-vaD} way too? ~ Dana'an