18 Sep
2019
18 Sep
'19
10:50 a.m.
On Wed, 18 Sep 2019 at 15:24, mayqel qunen'oS <mihkoun@gmail.com> wrote:
I've always wondered with regards to the placement of the {-be'} relative to the {-pu'} and {-ta'}.
As far as the {-pu'} is concerned, since the tkd has the Ca'Non example of {vIta'pu'be'}, I decided to *always* write {-pu'be'} instead of {-be'pu'}.
TKD says "It follows the concept being negated". Here, {vIta'pu'} "I did it" is the concept. Before I continue, does anyone have something to comment on the above ?
And now I continue..
However, I'm still puzzled as far as the placement of the {-be'} relative to the {-ta'} is concerned.
Since {-ta'} is the same suffix type as {-pu'}, why would you expect it to work any differently with respect to {-be'}? -- De'vID