DevID:
the answer to {'Iv SoH} should take the form {X SoH} (and not {X jIH}). {SoH 'Iv} avoids this problem.
I can't understand this. Why when someone asks me {'Iv SoH}, I can't reply saying {mayqel jIH}, and be consistent with the TKD ? I would be placing the answer {mayqel} at the place of the {'Iv} and I would have replaced -necessarily- the {SoH}, with {jIH}. Is this replacement, the point you're trying to make ? Do you mean, that by using {SoH 'Iv} and replying {mayqel jIH}, the replacement matter is overcome, because the answer doesn't just replace the {'Iv} of the {'Iv SoH} (if we had used it), but employs a different word order altogether ? But if that's the case, then the {SoH 'Iv}, not only it doesn't address any matter at all, but it contradicts the rule that "the {'Iv} takes the place of the answer in a sentence", since the answer {mayqel jIH}, doesn't just replace the {'Iv} but changes the word order altogether. This whole matter resembles quick sand ; the more I try to understand, the deeper I get.. On Thu, Jun 23, 2016 at 12:24 PM, De'vID <de.vid.jonpin@gmail.com> wrote:
On 22 June 2016 at 15:43, SuStel <sustel@trimboli.name> wrote:
SoH 'Iv and 'Iv SoH appear in both forms because (a) Okrand probably forgot he did it one way, and (b) 'Iv is a kind of pronoun too, so either word can satisfy the pronoun part of a to-be sentence.
Whether {SoH 'Iv} came about because Okrand forgot that you could write {'Iv SoH} or he did it deliberately, I think it makes more sense. TKD 6.4 explains that {'Iv} takes the place of the answer in a sentence. If we strictly follow TKD "by the book" (and of course I should mention it's only a grammatical sketch), the answer to {'Iv SoH} should take the form {X SoH} (and not {X jIH}). {SoH 'Iv} avoids this problem. But both appear in canon, so apparently both are acceptable.
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