It may seem weird to be asking this now, after six years, but I just started to wonder about this. According to tkd "The adverbial may actually follow the object noun (but still precede the verb) when the object noun is topicalized by means of the noun suffix {-'e'}". And then we have the Ca'Non example of {HaqwI' 'e' DaH yISam} "Find the SURGEON now!" Suppose now that we want to say "attack the ROMULANS now!" romuluSnganpu''e' DaH yIHIv romuluSnganpu''e' DaH tIHIv Do we say {romuluSnganpu''e' DaH yIHIv}, or do we say {romuluSnganpu''e' DaH tIHIv}? It seems strange having a prefix indicating that the verb has an object, but not seeing that object directly in front of the verb. -- Dana'an https://sacredtextsinklingon.wordpress.com/ Ζεὺς ἦν, Ζεὺς ἐστίν, Ζεὺς ἔσσεται· ὦ μεγάλε Ζεῦ