On 10/11/2017 7:11 AM, mayqel qunenoS wrote:
Is there a difference between these two sentences ?
Am 11.10.2017 um 15:03 schrieb SuStel:
Do Klingons do this? Probably. Everyday Klingon speech is probably a lot less formal than we teach on this list. I don't think we've seen this particular thing being done before, though.
I'v also been thinking about this lately, and like to ask the question differently: TKD tells us that the adverbial comes at the beginning of a sentence. The question is, how is a sentence defined, or wouldn't it be better to define this as "the adverbial comes at the beginning of a [linguistic-term-here] clause"? paq'batlh has a phrase where the word {DaH} does not appear at the very beginning, but it appears on a spot where it modifies the right verb: {SuvwI' DameH puqloDwI' vIghojHa'moH DaH 'e' vItlhoj} "I see now, I have failed to raise my son a man." instead of going for {DaH [SuvwI' DameH puqloDwI' vIghojHa'moH 'e' vItlhoj]. } mayqel's question can apply to many adverbials: ghorgh bIghungmo' bIHegh? bIghungmo' ghorgh bIHegh? bIpuvtaHvIS qatlh bIbom? qatlh bIpuvtaHvIS bIbom? Is there any canon for this, or at least some linguistic argument for this? I dare not to say that it "feels" right. :-) -- Lieven L. Litaer aka the "Klingon Teacher from Germany" http://www.klingonisch.net http://www.klingonwiki.net/En/Adverbials