On 8/11/2017 11:15 AM, mayqel qunenoS wrote:
Let me ask you something else..
Suppose I write {vIghro'lIj'e' vIparHa'} for "as for your cat, I like it".
Is it correct to say that the object of {vIparHa'} is the {vIghro'lIj'e'} ?
There are two possible interpretations. The normal one, which anyone would choose given no other context, is that *vIghro'lIj'e'* is the emphasized object of *vIparHa'.* However, it is also possible to consider a noun with *-'e'* to be a syntactic noun, like nouns with *-Daq**, -vo', -mo',* or *-vaD.* It is therefore possible to interpret *vIghro'lIj'e'* as the topic of the sentence rather than its object, and the actual object is elided. Consider this sentence: *vIghro'lIj'e' veDDaj vIparHa' */As for your cat, I like his fur./ Your sentence is the same sentence, just with the *veDDaj* elided: /As for your cat, I like it./ Without context we don't know what the /it/ refers to, but it's still a valid interpretation of the sentence. -- SuStel http://trimboli.name