On 9/13/2017 12:30 PM, mayqel qunenoS wrote:
qaStaHvIS poHvam, chImchu'bogh loghDaq > taHlaHtaH tarDIghaD, tera' Ha'DIbaHHom pujHa’qu’.
The {tera' Ha'DIbaHHom} which follows the {taHlaHtaH tarDIghaD} separated from it by a comma, is rather nice because it serves to explain to the reader, what this tarDIghaD actually is.
The separation by the comma, of the words which follow it, recreate/resemble the way someone would change the tone of his voice if he was actually speaking these words, in order to further define the nature of the tarDIghaD he is talking about.
This is a common way to indicate noun phrases in apposition.
pa' chaw' ngoqvam baghHa’meH ’oH, De'wI' > motlh lo'laH. 'ach Do' 'e' ta' neHbe' 'oH.
And here, the interesting part is the {'ach Do'} before the {'e'}.
[...]
So, the question is whether the tarDIghaD passage is considered canon.
Canon? Isn't this just a translation of something by loghaD? -- SuStel http://trimboli.name