On 22 June 2016 at 15:43, SuStel <sustel@trimboli.name> wrote:
SoH 'Iv and 'Iv SoH appear in both forms because (a) Okrand probably forgot he did it one way, and (b) 'Iv is a kind of pronoun too, so either word can satisfy the pronoun part of a to-be sentence.
Whether {SoH 'Iv} came about because Okrand forgot that you could write {'Iv SoH} or he did it deliberately, I think it makes more sense. TKD 6.4 explains that {'Iv} takes the place of the answer in a sentence. If we strictly follow TKD "by the book" (and of course I should mention it's only a grammatical sketch), the answer to {'Iv SoH} should take the form {X SoH} (and not {X jIH}). {SoH 'Iv} avoids this problem. But both appear in canon, so apparently both are acceptable. -- De'vID