Oh, sorry.. my bad (as americans say). I failed to adequately formulate the question.. So, here goes again.. For a moment let us forget where and when the phrase was written. Focusing only on the phrase and the current grammar, with regards to the usage of the verbs of movement, then.. If we write {vaS'a'Daq naDevvo' majaHlaH'a'}, then does that mean "can we get to the great hall from here", or "are we able to go away from here, with the going taking place in the vicinity of the great hall, but in a direction away from here" ? qunnoq On 9 Aug 2017 6:53 pm, "SuStel" <sustel@trimboli.name> wrote:
On 8/9/2017 11:40 AM, mayqel qunenoS wrote:
ok, I understand the change of meaning with regards to the aforementioned {chegh} example.
But now, lets look at another example..
PK: *> naDevvo' vaS'a'Daq majaHlaH'a'** can we get to the Great Hall* *> from here?*
If we wrote instead {vaS'a'Daq naDevvo' majaHlaH'a'}, then would that mean "can we get to the great hall from here", or "are we able to go away from here, with the going taking place in the vicinity of the great hall, but in a direction away from here" ?
As I mentioned in another post today, that example was written before Okrand had come up with the "verbs of motion" thing, and it does not follow the rule.
-- SuStelhttp://trimboli.name
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