I think you making an observation and presuming an underlying rule that doesn’t exist. While you may see a similarity between {‘op} and {-lu’}, there may well be absolutely nothing connecting them in the way you suggest. We can as easily say that {‘op} is like {Hoch}, and since {Hoch} can be used after a noun, likely {‘op} can be, too. Meanwhile, neither presumption has apparently been confirmed by canon. charghwI’, retired.
On Mar 25, 2022, at 6:56 AM, mayqel qunen'oS <mihkoun@gmail.com> wrote:
(This is a continuation of a thread I'd started on July 16 2020: http://lists.kli.org/pipermail/tlhingan-hol-kli.org/2020-July/015310.html)
On the other hand, perhaps the {'op} is the number equivalent of {-lu'}.
Meaning that as the {-lu'} talks about an indefinite subject, in a similar manner the {'op} talks about an unknown/unspecified number/quantity of crap.
The definition of {'op} is given as "some, an unknown or unspecified quantity", and this reminds me of the unspecified flavor of {-lu'}.
If all this is correct, and the {'op} is indeed the number equivalent of {-lu'}, then it can't be placed after a noun.
Because if it works like numbers, then placing it after the noun would be like writing {tlhInganpu' jav} and expecting it to be understood as "six of the klingons", which isn't possible to do since according to Ca'Non {tlhInganpu' jav} would mean "klingons number six".
Let alone that if {'op} is indeed the number equivalent of {-lu'}, then what would {tlhInganpu' 'op} mean? For some reason this reminds me of the {-lu'wI'} which although grammatically correct, it actually makes no sense.
Of course the counter-argument could be that "even if {'op} is indeed the number equivalent of {-lu'}, then why would you find its' placement after the noun strange, while you don't find anything strange with it being placed before it?".
But the answer would be simple: "Because we have Ca'Non where the {'op} is placed before the noun".
Anyways, I just wanted to add these thoughts to this thread. So I'll shut up now.
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