On 10/15/2019 8:14 AM, mayqel qunen'oS wrote:
I want to say "klingons fight in order to be seen".
Suppose I write:
{tlhInganpu' luleghlu'meH Suv tlhInganpu'}
Would it be correct ?
What puzzles me is this..
The way "I've gotten used to the {-meH}", is that the subject of the {-meH} phrase, is the subject of the phrase which follows it too.
But is that the case, or can the object of the {-meH} phrase, be the subject of the phrase which follows it ?
So, could I write {tlhIngan leghmeH romuluSngan, jach tlhIngan} for "the klingon shouts, in order that the romulan sees him" ?
No, the object and/or subject of a purpose clause play no independent role in the main sentence. When a purpose clause modifies a noun, there isn't even any object or subject, e.g., *ja'chuqmeH rojHom. *It's treated as an indivisible noun phrase. When a purpose clause modifies a verb, the clause just hangs off the front of the main clause without directly participating in it. *jagh luHoHmeH jagh lunejtaH:* the purpose clause is not in any way an object of the main clause. *tlhInganpu' luleghlu'meH Suv tlhInganpu'* means /In order that Klingons are seen, Klingons fight./ *tlhIngan leghmeH romuluSngan jach tlhIngan* means /In order that the Romulan sees the Klingon, the Klingon shouts./ -- SuStel http://trimboli.name