[tlhIngan Hol] -be' vs. -Ha'

[Steven Boozer]

I found two posts by SuStel re the slang phrase {Duj ngaDHa'} "person who is wildly irresponsible, out of control, undisciplined" :

(SuStel 9/1997):  It's official: we can use {-Ha'} on adjectival verbs. Yes, it's in a slang expression, but Okrand says nothing about this being nonstandard grammar (he's very careful about that sort of thing all through the slang section).

(SuStel, 10/2011):  {Duj ngaDHa'} in KGT was also the first time we saw { -Ha'} on an adjectivally acting verb. Prior to that we'd only seen {-qu'} in TKD ({veng tInqu'Daq} "in the big city") and {-be'} in CK ({wa'maH yIHmey lI'be'} "ten useless tribbles").

See also  {'eyHa'} "be undelicious, poor-tasting" :

(KGT 84):  All food is considered to be good in its natural state; it takes the intervention of a cook to ruin it. Thus, the word {'eyHa'}, used to describe food that is edible but is not particularly tasty, means something like "undelicious", implying that someone caused it to cease being delicious. 

Voragh

------------------------------Original Message------------------------------
From: Lieven L. Litaer via tlhIngan-Hol

I remember a discussion and an explanation about using {-Ha'} vs.
{-be'}, or am I wrong? Was it ever explained?

Why is it {yIH lI'be'} instead of {yIH lI'Ha'}?

I think I vaguely remember seing an answer to this, but I just can't find it.