[tlhIngan Hol] rIntaH and be-verbs

[mayqel qunen'oS]

lieven:
> From ST3 {vIje' rIntaH} means that valkris
> has bought the thing, the action of buying
> is complete, in the sense that this
> situation will last forever, not that it's over
> forever.
SuStel:
> This is true for action verbs, because the
> verb brings about a change of state.
> When you je', you change the owner of
> the object of the sentence. rIntaH means
> that the action of buying is over, and the
> new state of ownership is  permanent.
> This works generally for action verbs.
> But verbs of quality (without syntax-
> changing suffixes) do not describe an
> action that brings about a change of
> state. They simply describe a quality.
> With rIntaH, a quality means you set out
> to be that quality, you completed being
> that quality (so now it's over), and what
> you've done is final.

If I understand correctly, by "verbs of quality", we mean be-verbs, which
are intransitive.

But what happens, when we have an intransitive non-be-verb, as is the case
with {ratlh} ? Does it behave with regards to aspect, as a be-verb ?

For simplicity reasons, lets leave aside the {rIntaH}.

Suppose I write: {pa' jIratlhpu'}.

Would you agree that it means: "I have remained there, but now my remaining
there is over, i.e. now I'm somewhere else" ?

~ mayqel qunen'oS
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