[tlhIngan Hol] can the object of the {-meH} be the subject of what follows it ?

[SuStel]

On 10/15/2019 8:14 AM, mayqel qunen'oS wrote:
> I want to say "klingons fight in order to be seen".
>
> Suppose I write:
>
> {tlhInganpu' luleghlu'meH Suv tlhInganpu'}
>
> Would it be correct ?
>
> What puzzles me is this..
>
> The way "I've gotten used to the {-meH}", is that the subject of the 
> {-meH} phrase, is the subject of the phrase which follows it too.
>
> But is that the case, or can the object of the {-meH} phrase, be the 
> subject of the phrase which follows it ?
>
> So, could I write {tlhIngan leghmeH romuluSngan, jach tlhIngan} for 
> "the klingon shouts, in order that the romulan sees him" ?

No, the object and/or subject of a purpose clause play no independent 
role in the main sentence.

When a purpose clause modifies a noun, there isn't even any object or 
subject, e.g., *ja'chuqmeH rojHom. *It's treated as an indivisible noun 
phrase.

When a purpose clause modifies a verb, the clause just hangs off the 
front of the main clause without directly participating in it. *jagh 
luHoHmeH jagh lunejtaH:* the purpose clause is not in any way an object 
of the main clause.

*tlhInganpu' luleghlu'meH Suv tlhInganpu'* means /In order that Klingons 
are seen, Klingons fight./ *tlhIngan leghmeH romuluSngan jach tlhIngan* 
means /In order that the Romulan sees the Klingon, the Klingon shouts./

-- 
SuStel
http://trimboli.name

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