[tlhIngan Hol] difference between {ta'} and {voDleH}

nIqolay Q niqolay0 at gmail.com
Mon Jul 1 08:03:19 PDT 2019

On Mon, Jul 1, 2019 at 10:44 AM mayqel qunen'oS <mihkoun at gmail.com> wrote:

> I just *feel* as a more "formal" word the {voDleH} compared to the {ta'},
> but of course this is just a "feeling".

If nothing else, {voDleH} has fewer opportunities for wordplay.

> What I do wonder though, is whether in a looong text e.g. the new
> testament, I should choose one of the two and stick with it, or use them
> interchangeably.

If you're referring to the same emperor each time (like if you're using it
to refer to Herod), I would stick with the same noun each time.
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