Watching on youtube videos on pronouncing klingon, there are two things I noticed which confused me.
First, I noticed that on the pronunciation of someĀ one-syllable nouns which have the suffix {-mey}, the stress on some is placed on the noun itself (as it should be), while on others the stress is placed on the {-mey}, although it bears no qaghwI'. And the stress is shifted there, although these nouns are pronounced on their own, outside the context of the sentence; so it cannot be happening for the sake of placing emphasis on the plural.
Second, and this is the most important, I can't understand the pronunciation of {-be'}..
But before I say what confuses me, I need to write how I understand "what stress is", because perhaps this is were the root of my problem is..
The way I understand it, when we say "stress" of a word, we mean saying slightly louder that syllable. Lets see an example.
Two computer enginneers examine a malfunctioning computer. And one of them says, believing he identified the problem, "its the hard DISC", saying the word "disc" a little louder. This is what I understand when I read "stress of a word/syllable".
maj..
However, in the previous example, if one of the engineers wonders whether its the hard disc which causes the malfunction, he can say "the hard disc ?". And because he is asking, his voice will pronounce the word "disc", with a "rising tone".
maj again..
And now we come to the qaghwI', which as I understand it, is an abrupt end of the sound of the preceding vowel.
So, now lets get back to the {-be'}, examining the example of the word {yajbe'}.
According to the rules of pronunciation, at least as I understand them to be, I would expect {yajbe'} to be stressed on the {-be'} (i.e. the {-be'} being spoken a little louder), with the voice of the speaker coming to an abrupt end immediately after the {e}. And I would expect, that since {yajbe'} isn't a question, the voice of the speaker wouldn't assume a "rising tone" as it would in the "hard disc ?" example.
However, I notice that on numerous occasions of videos I see on youtube, the voice of the speaker does indeed assume a "rising tone". Something which seems to happen not only with the {-be'}, but with other suffixes as well, which happen to bear the qaghwI' and be the last syllable of a word.
I can't believe that all those people are doing it wrong, so obviously, I am the one who is missing something here..
And if someone could enlighten me, as to what it is I'm actually missing, I would be grateful..
And qeylIS would be happy..
~ 'ISterlIng