De'vID:
> it would be impossible to use the prefix trick on a sentence like "I speak Klingon to him"
> (because {vI-} already indicates the direct object, {tlhIngan Hol} "Klingon", and thus cannot
> indicate the indirect object, {ghaH} "him"). But {[ghaH] lujang} "they answer him"
> is fine in the paq'batlh, because the only possible object in context is Molor.

If the point of this thread is that the prefix trick *can* be applied to the third person as well, then -if the context is clear- why couldn't we write {tlhIngan Hol vIjatlh}?

As far as the {ghaH lujang} goes, paq'batlh aside, since the only object {jang} can take is a/the person hearing the reply, why was this clarification necessary to start with?

De'vID:
> The verb {jatlh} can also be used when giving direct quotations

Didn't we know that already? Why did 'oqranD need to say this again? Am I missIng something here?

De'vID:
> Also: <The verb {jatlh} can also be used when giving direct quotations... If the speaker is first or second person,
> the pronominal prefix indicating "no object" is used>. Again, this applies to the third person as well. {tlhIngan Hol lujatlh}
> means "they speak Klingon", whereas {tlhIngan Hol jatlh [chaH]} means "they say, 'Klingon language'".
> In the singular case, {tlhIngan Hol jatlh [ghaH]}, the prefix does not distinguish between "she speaks Klingon"
> and "she says, 'Klingon language'" (but normally it would be understood as the first).

In the relevant msn message, there's the sentence:

tlhIngan Hol qajatlh
"I speak Klingon to you"

So, and since the prefix trick has been extended to the third person as well, why can't the {tlhIngan Hol lujatlh} mean too "the speak Klingon to him"?

De'vID:
> whereas {tlhIngan Hol jatlh [chaH]} means "they say, 'Klingon language'

Can't this mean too "the speak Klingon to them"?

De'vID:
> In the singular case, {tlhIngan Hol jatlh [ghaH]}, the prefix does not distinguish
> between "she speaks Klingon" and "she says, 'Klingon language'" (but normally it would be understood as the first).

Again, can't this mean too "she speaks klingon to them"?

De'vID:
> Going back through my discussions with Dr. Okrand, he
> wrote that {loDnI'Daj vavDaj je} was fine as the object of {ja' qeylIS}


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Dana'an
https://sacredtextsinklingon.wordpress.com/
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