That strikes me as peculiar. Since {vIje’} has the prefix assigning the subject to that verb, I would expect that for emphasis, if you wanted to add {jIH} it should go after {vIje’}, as in {vIje’ jIH rIntaH}.

Doing it as {vIje’ rIntaH jIH} only makes sense if, given that written Klingon as we know it is phonetic spelling of spoken Klingon, somehow {rIntaH} has become a Type 10 suffix,

Or it's just an exceptional rule that says the special word rIntaH comes after the verb regardless of any subjects or objects. Similar to how the adverbial neH comes after a verb or noun as needed instead of coming at the front of a sentence. It's just exceptional. We don't need to make up hypothetical type 10 suffixes.

so it always follows the verb and its other suffixes, and any subject would follow it. Otherwise, I see no justification for {rIntaH jIH}, since as a sentence, it would have to be {jIrIntaH jIH}.

No, the jIH would be the subject of vIje', with the word rIntaH simply being inserted after the verb.

We have no problem with qa'vIn De' vIje' neH jIH I merely buy the Genesis data. Why would we have a problem with qa'vIn De' vIje' rIntaH jIH I have bought the Genesis data?

On the other hand, this is being described in TKD as a special kind of sentence-as-object construction, so it might make sense that when Okrand said verb he actually meant sentence, since all his examples have no explicit subject.

Again, without data, we can't decide one way or the other.

-- 
SuStel
http://trimboli.name