I just noticed that a meaning of a sentence can change depending on
where an adverb is placed. I'm not sure if there is a rule forbidding,
or if there are even examples for that.
See this:
{not bIQong 'e' vISov.}
"I know that you never sleep"
vs.
{bIQong not 'e' vISov.}
"I never knew that you sleep."
Can I do that?
Yes.
TKD 6.7 (add) says that "the adverbial precedes the object-verb-noun
construction". In the above example, {'e'} is the object of the verb
{Sov}, so I think it's correct. – Or did I forget something?
I somehow feel there is a canon example for this (x not 'e'), but I just
can't remember.
{DuraS tuq tlhIngan yejquv patlh luDub 'e' reH lunIDtaH DuraS be'nI'pu' lurSa' be'etor je. ngoQvam luchavmeH ghawran maghpu' be'nI'pu'.}
"The sisters of the House of Duras, Lursa and B'Etor, are constantly seeking a higher standing for the House of Duras within the Klingon High Council."
Note that {reH} directly precedes {lunaHtaH} here, and not {luDub}. "By the book", the {reH} should have preceded the {'e'}, but {'e'} is not a typical object.
--
De'vID