On Tue, Oct 10, 2017 at 1:19 AM, mayqel qunenoS <mihkoun@gmail.com> wrote:

> beyHom bey bey'a' jachtaH latlh tlhInganpu'. (S31)

Is this an example of nouns in apposition ? Because if it is,
according to what had been discussed here some time ago, then {beyHom}
{bey} {bey'a'} should all be the same (one with the other). But
obviously they aren't.

Nobody is sure what the heck is going on in that sentence. For now, it's best to think of it as some idiomatic set phrase that shouldn't be generalized from.