I don’t think we should assume that {jIj} isn’t a pair of homophones, one of which can be used adjectivally.

It's entirely possible. The example in question doesn't make it clear one way or another. woQ luSuqmeH jIjpu' chaH romuluSngan'e' je. Again, it's a bad data point, and shouldn't be used to draw any conclusions on this matter.

(I'll note that the English translation, work with Romulan factions, is not stative or a quality, so this sentence is unlikely to be the source of the later be cooperative gloss for jIj.)

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SuStel
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