All of a sudden something came to my mind.

> The example is yaS legh puq 'ej yaS qIp puq.Okay. Here comes the key part, to 

> which I will add my own emphasis: "It is possible, however, to use pronouns 

> rather than nouns in the second of the joined sentences."
> A pronoun wants an antecedent. Not a postcedent. A pronoun wants to refer back 

> to a noun that has already been stated. So TKD gives us the example yaS legh 

> puq 'ej ghaH qIp ghaH. The ghaH's refer to the previous object and subject, 

> and what's more, the object pronoun refers to the previous object noun and the subject 

> pronoun refers to the previous subject noun.

After reading your explanation, I understand what 'oqranD tries to say in TKD. So far so good. But doesn't 'oqranD contradict himself with the {romuluSngan Sambogh 'ej HoHbogh nejwI'}? According to TKD shouldn't it be {romuluSngan Sambogh nejwI' 'ej HoHbogh}? Or are we to understand it as an exception/special case?

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Dana'an
https://sacredtextsinklingon.wordpress.com/
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