> {qagh vIvut. nom yISop.}

SuStel:

> The object of Sop in that sentence is 'oH.

> It has been elided as allowed. It looks like

> the yI- is agreeing with the qagh, but

> really it's agreeing with the pronoun

> whose antecedent is qagh.

I hadn't realized that! So in the {romuluSnganpu'e' DaH tIHIv} the object of {tIHIv} isn't the {romuluSnganpu'}, but rather an elided {chaH}.

But then why does tkd that "The adverbial may actually follow the object noun (but still precede the verb) when the object noun is topicalized by means of the noun suffix {-'e'}", if in the tkd example the object of {yI-} isn't the {HaqwI'} but rather an elided {ghaH}?