We know we can say:

qagh (lu)Sop 'op

some eat qagh

(I don't know whether {'op} is to be treated as grammatically singular or plural.. If someone knows, please enlighten me..)

But I wonder, whether it'd be correct to say:

qagh luSop 'op puS

few eat qagh

I can't see anything grammatically wrong with it, (although qeylIS knows, I don't know jack qeQ when it comes to grammar..).

But I can't stop wondering, whether it actually makes sense..

Does it make sense? Maybe. Not sure. I don't like all the experiments people do with 'op, apparently with English or some other language in mind. Is it valid? Dunno.

Try qagh luSop ghot puS Few people eat qagh, qagh luSop ghot puS Dep puS je Few people or beings eat qagh, or maybe even qagh luSop puSwI' Those who are few eat qagh (though this one wouldn't be my first choice). Or motlhHa' qagh Soplu' Qagh is not usually eaten, pIjHa' qagh Soplu' Qagh is eaten infrequently, qagh SopwI' puS law' qagh SopQo'wI' puS puS Qagh eaters are fewer than qagh non-eaters.

-- 
SuStel
http://trimboli.name