Off-topic: How is "it is cold to me" absolutely weird? After all, if I say, "I am cold", then someone could take my temperature and conclude that I'm still at 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit. So it's not so much that I am cold, as that I have a feeling of coldness... why? Because the air is cold, and making me feel coldness; it is cold to me. Much more logical than English! :-D

-QISta'

On Mon, Aug 8, 2016 at 3:08 AM, Lieven <levinius@gmx.de> wrote:
Am 07.08.2016 um 15:57 schrieb mayqel qunenoS:
it sounds like "shut up don't ask; [...]

Actually, that's exectly how we should take it.

No language is "logic". Sometimes you just have to accept it as it is. No reason to get upset. Just like Felix pointed out, in english we say "I am cold", french is "I have cold", and then German even says something absolutely weird "it is cold to me" (mir ist kalt).

There is a story from qep'a' chorghDIch where an english speaker asked at the restaurant {nuq Daghaj?} for "what will you have", as in "what will you eat?" The german speaker only understands "what do you possess", because in german, you cannot "have" food.

Don't be confused too easily.


--
Lieven L. Litaer
aka Quvar valer 'utlh
Grammarian of the KLI
http://www.facebook.com/Klingonteacher
http://www.klingonwiki.net

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