these seem downright weird:
{nuqDaq 'oH ngop'e'?}
{'Iv ghaH no'ra''e'?}
{cha 'oH'a'?}
{negh ghaHlaw'.}
Do we have canonical evidence of pronouns used to stand in for irregular plural nouns?
{nuqDaq 'oH ngop'e'} is given as an example in KGT on p.33 where the grammar of inherently plural nouns is explained. Those sentences are grammatically correct.
Sigh. Once again I ask a question that’s answered in KGT, and amusingly this time I even made up an example that is identical to a canonical example that answers my question.
I clearly need to repeatedly read KGT until I don’t ask questions like that any more. Maybe I’ll sleep with it under my pillow tonight.
For some reason, the examples with {ghaH} strike me as even weirder than the ones with {'oH}. But if we do use {'oH} for {ngop}, I can’t justify using {chaH} for {no'}.