> Likely, Okrand was giving us canon 

> before the use of {law’} was restricted to 

> countable objects

I'm afraid you lost me here. How is {law'} restricted to countable objects ? When did this happen ?

Doesn't the {'ul law'} demonstrate that we can use the {law'} for uncountable nouns too, even if we have been given the newer word {vItlh} ?

~ Qa'yIn