TKD says a few things about {je}, both as an adverb and as a noun conjunction, and it says a few things about the importance of context. The two placements of {je} you offered would seem perfectly appropriate if preceded by the following context-providing sentences:

- muQoy HoD.
- mulegh je HoD.

- mulegh be’nalwI’.
- mulegh HoD je.

I take TKD at its word and follow the verb with {je} when using it adverbially, not interpreting “follows the verb" to mean “follow the entire verb clause”. If it’s after a noun, I interpret it as a noun conjunction, even if it follows one noun, assuming that context might suggest other nouns to add this one to.

Why?

Well, adverbs don’t generally follow verbs. They generally precede them. {je} is an exception. Likely, since the homonym follows the nouns it modifies, the adverb follows the verb it modifies. That’s not explicitly explained in TKD, but it’s just a reasonable idea based on observation.

pItlh

charghwI’ ‘utlh
(ghaH, ghaH, -Daj)

On Aug 10, 2021, at 6:01 AM, Lieven L. Litaer <levinius@gmx.de> wrote:

Hello dear,

I'm sure this has been discussed before, but I can't find it. So maybe
the answere is just a reference to the discusion.

This is one of the few things I keep messing up all the time: TKD says
{je} comes after the verb, but what if there is a subject after that verb?

{mulegh je HoD}
or
{mulegh HoD je}

My feeling says that both are correct with a different meaning, but I
want to be sure.

--
Lieven L. Litaer
aka the "Klingon Teacher from Germany"
http://www.tlhInganHol.com
http://klingon.wiki/En/AliceInWonderland
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