On Tue, May 7, 2019 at 2:41 PM mayqel qunen'oS <mihkoun@gmail.com> wrote:

Read:

wagh vIghro'mey tIQ, qar'a' ?

ancient cats are expensive, is it accurate ?

This is correct.

Now, read this too:

wagh vIghro'mey tIQ, qarbe''a' ?

ancient cats are expensive, isn't it accurate ?

Is the above correct ? And if yes, is there any difference in meaning compared to the first sentence ? Because I can't understand any difference in meaning, if any..

We do have an example of -be''a' sentences. cheqotlhchugh maHaghbe''a'? cheDuQchugh mareghbe''a'? cheQIHchugh manoDbe''a'? Tickle us, do we not laugh? Prick us, do we not bleed? Wrong us, shall we not seek revenge?

In this case, it does seem to be used to indicate questions intended to get a "no" or "that is not the case" answer. (E.g.: "No, it is not the case that you don't laugh when tickled.") It's also a rhetorical flourish, intended to make the speaker think "It is the case that you laugh when tickled", so perhaps this grammar can't be taken 100% literally.