Yes, we can have the construction {b'e' 'oH a'e'}.

Yes, we can have the construction {yadda yadda yadda b'e' 'oHbogh 'a'e'}.

No one has demonstrated that either of these is true. I personally don't think they're true. I think having an -'e' on the subject of a "to be" sentence excludes having it on any other noun. But I can't prove a negative. Barring explicit advice from Okrand, I recommend you not do either of these.

-- 
SuStel
http://trimboli.name