On Mon, Dec 19, 2016 at 9:07 AM, mayqel qunenoS <mihkoun@gmail.com> wrote:

maj. however, how would you explain tkd's {jIHtaHbogh naDev vISovbe'}, and in particular the placement of {naDev} after the {jIHtaHbogh} and not before it ?

My explanation is that to expect the {naDev} to be required to precede {jIHtaHbogh} is an overgeneralization of the rule that places nouns + {-Daq} and location nouns like {naDev} before the verb.

In the examples from TKD and paq'batlh, {naDev} does follow the verb,