lieven:

> From ST3 {vIje' rIntaH} means that valkris

> has bought the thing, the action of buying

> is complete, in the sense that this 

> situation will last forever, not that it's over

> forever.

SuStel:

> This is true for action verbs, because the

> verb brings about a change of state. 

> When you je', you change the owner of 

> the object of the sentence. rIntaH means

> that the action of buying is over, and the 

> new state of ownership is  permanent.

> This works generally for action verbs.

> But verbs of quality (without syntax-

> changing suffixes) do not describe an 

> action that brings about a change of 

> state. They simply describe a quality. 

> With rIntaH, a quality means you set out 

> to be that quality, you completed being 

> that quality (so now it's over), and what 

> you've done is final.

If I understand correctly, by "verbs of quality", we mean be-verbs, which are intransitive.

But what happens, when we have an intransitive non-be-verb, as is the case with {ratlh} ? Does it behave with regards to aspect, as a be-verb ?

For simplicity reasons, lets leave aside the {rIntaH}.

Suppose I write: {pa' jIratlhpu'}.

Would you agree that it means: "I have remained there, but now my remaining there is over, i.e. now I'm somewhere else" ?

~ mayqel qunen'oS