Suppose someone asks: {qatlh choqIppu'?}/{qatlh choqIppta'?}.
Somehow, I get the impression that by answering {qaqIpta'be'}, this
answer could be interpreted as "I hit you, but it wasn't on purpose."
Somehow, I get the impression that by combining {-ta'} with {-be'},
the listener could *still* understand that the action took place, but
that it wasn't intentional.
So, is this the case indeed? Does the {-ta'} leave room for
interpretation for the {-pu'}?
According to TKD 4.2.7, "English translations seldom reveal the distinction [between {-pu'} and {-ta'}]."
I think your understanding is backwards. I'd understand {qaqIpta'be'} as "I didn't hit you", with the implication that I deliberately did not hit you. The {-be'} negates the completion or accomplishment, not the intentionality.