On Jun 27, 2019, at 08:22, terrence.donnelly <terrence.donnelly@sbcglobal.net> wrote:

Since when has any suffix besides -'e' been legal on either noun which is the subject or object of a relative verb? Did Okrand change his statement that he couldn't make it work as anything but subject or object and I missed it?

Huh, I’m new here so I hadn’t been aware that there was a restriction that relative clauses can only act as subjects or objects. I swear I’ve seen counterexamples besides what we’re discussing right now, but they were probably non-canon examples.

On 6/27/2019 9:00 AM, Daniel Dadap wrote:
On Jun 27, 2019, at 01:46, De'vID <de.vid.jonpin@gmail.com> wrote:

qeylIS'e' lIjlaHbe'bogh vay'vaD gha'tlhIq vIbom.
Why not {qeylISvaD lIjlaHbe'bogh vay'}?
These mean very different things.

Right, and the version with {qeylISvaD} is the one that matches De'vID’s English sentence. Hence my asking why not {qeylISvaD}.