voragh:

> I can’t see any real difference in usage. 

> Can you?

Me neither.

I just *feel* as a more "formal" word the {voDleH} compared to the {ta'}, but of course this is just a "feeling".

What I do wonder though, is whether in a looong text e.g. the new testament, I should choose one of the two and stick with it, or use them interchangeably.

But I guess there's no answer to that.

But if there *is* one, qeylIS knows, I would like to hear it..

~ gkgjkh