Suppose I write the sentence: 

{Qo'noSDaq SoSlI' juHDaq qajatlh, latlh be' vImuSHa'}

"At Qo'noS at your mother's house I told you, that I love another woman".

Do you agree with the above translation, or is it, that due to the absence of a {je} after the {juHDaq}, the meaning becomes "at your mother's house which is Qo'noS I told you, that I love another woman" ?

You could interpret it that way. I don't think the lack of a je makes the difference. It could also be interpreted as two separate locatives that both apply simultaneously, one being of a different scope than another.

In a cavern, in a canyon
Excavating for a mine
Dwelt a miner, forty-niner
And his daughter, Clementine.

In the verse, the locatives in a cavern and in a canyon are not in apposition to each other. The cavern is within the canyon. The subjects of the sentence both have appositional pairs: a miner = forty-niner and his daughter = Clementine.

In your Klingon sentence, it's possible that SoSlI' juH is within the scope of Qo'noS.

If the sentence did have a je, the meaning would be different:

Qo'noSDaq SoSlI' juHDaq je qajatlh
I speak to you on Kronos and in your mother's home

Here it's possible that you speak to me in both of those places, but not in a single utterance. One day you speak to me on Kronos; another day you speak to me in my mother's house.

-- 
SuStel
http://trimboli.name