<div style=""><span style="font-family: Arial; font-size: 14px; color: rgb(34, 34, 34);">De'vID:</span><br></div><blockquote style="border-left: 3px solid rgb(200, 200, 200); border-top-color: rgb(200, 200, 200); border-right-color: rgb(200, 200, 200); border-bottom-color: rgb(200, 200, 200); padding-left: 10px; color: rgb(102, 102, 102);"><div style=""><span style="font-family: Arial; font-size: 14px; color: rgb(34, 34, 34);"><div>A: {qatlh Sutamchu'?} "Why are you all silent?"<br>B1: {tlhIH(1), SuvwI'pu' Hem,} "You, proud warriors,"<br>C: {boghIjlu''a'?} "Are you afraid?"<br>B2: {tlhIH(2) je, qanra' puqloD,} "And you, sons of Kahnrah,"<br>D: {pejatlh!} "Speak up!"<br></div></span></div></blockquote><div style=""><span style="font-family: Arial; font-size: 14px; color: rgb(34, 34, 34);"></span><span style=""><span></span><br></span></div><div style=""><span style="font-family: Arial; font-size: 14px; color: rgb(34, 34, 34);">I'm confused about this. First of all, B1 is a vocative expression of C and B2 is a vocative expression of D. They are different sentences. But even we somehow accept that B1 and B2 are parts of the same sentence, we get this:</span></div><div style=""><span style="font-family: Arial; font-size: 14px; color: rgb(34, 34, 34);"><br></span></div><div style=""><b>tlhIH, SuvwI'pu' Hem, tlhIH je, qanra' puqloD</b></div><div style=""><b><br></b></div><div style="">I don't understand how the apposition <b>qanra' puqloD</b> can come after <b>je</b>. My understanding is that <b>je</b> ends the whole noun phrase. Therefore, if we want to connect an apposition to a noun phrase inside the <b>je </b>phrase, we should put it before <b>je</b>:</div><div style=""><br></div><div style=""><b style="background-color:rgb(255, 255, 255)">tlhIH, SuvwI'pu' Hem, tlhIH, qanra' puqloD je</b><br></div><div style=""><b style="background-color:rgb(255, 255, 255)"><br></b></div><div style="">I add parentheses around the noun phrases:</div><div style=""><br></div><div style=""><b>(tlhIH, SuvwI'pu' Hem) (tlhIH, qanra' puqloD) je</b></div><div style=""><br></div><div style="">I think this is obviously allowed. However, if we move the second apposition after <b>je</b>, the second noun phrase stops, then comes <b>je</b> and then the noun phrase continues. This just seems odd to me.</div><div style=""><br></div><div style="">Iikka "fergusq" Hauhio</div><div class="protonmail_quote">
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On Friday, June 24th, 2022 at 19.36, De'vID <de.vid.jonpin@gmail.com> wrote:<br><br>
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<div dir="ltr"><div dir="ltr"><br></div><br><div class="gmail_quote"><div class="gmail_attr" dir="ltr">On Fri, 24 Jun 2022 at 14:36, D qunen'oS <<a href="mailto:mihkoun@gmail.com" rel="noreferrer nofollow noopener" target="_blank">mihkoun@gmail.com</a>> wrote:<br></div><blockquote style="margin:0px 0px 0px 0.8ex;border-left:1px solid rgb(204,204,204);padding-left:1ex" class="gmail_quote"><div dir="ltr">De'vID:<br>> It's not elided. Both of the conjoined nouns are written.<br>> {tlhIH(1), SuvwI'pu' Hem,} "You, proud warriors,"<br>> {boghIjlu''a'?} "Are you afraid?"<br><div>> {tlhIH(2) je, qanra' puqloD,} "And you, sons of Kahnrah,"</div><div><br></div><div>Ok, I can understand this.</div><div><br></div><div>But again, the nouns being conjoined aren't in the same sentence. They're at different sentences.</div></div></blockquote><div><br></div><div>They *are* in the same sentence. Ignoring the appositives, that sentence is {tlhIH tlhIH je}, a vocative (an exclamation). </div><div> </div><div>A: {qatlh Sutamchu'?} "Why are you all silent?"<br>B1: {tlhIH(1), SuvwI'pu' Hem,} "You, proud warriors,"<br>C: {boghIjlu''a'?} "Are you afraid?"<br>B2: {tlhIH(2) je, qanra' puqloD,} "And you, sons of Kahnrah,"<br>D: {pejatlh!} "Speak up!"<br></div><div><br></div><div>There are four sentences here: A, B, C, and D. Sentence B gets interrupted by sentence C, and then resumes. </div><div><br></div><div>There is no new grammar here. I repeat: there is no new grammar here. </div><div><br></div><div>The fact that sometimes, when a person is speaking, they'll interrupt something they're saying mid-sentence, say something else, and then resume the original sentence, is not something that can or needs to be formulated into a rule of grammar. It's just a feature of any language. You can do this in English, or in Greek, but you won't find a rule in a grammar textbook book for English or Greek telling you how to do this.</div><div><br></div><blockquote style="margin:0px 0px 0px 0.8ex;border-left:1px solid rgb(204,204,204);padding-left:1ex" class="gmail_quote"><div dir="ltr"><div></div><div>So, (if I understand this correctly) I can say to a singer: {SoH bItlhIb, bIbomtaHvIS, qoghDu'wIj vIpoSnISmoH}, and then say to another singer {SoH je, bIbomtaHvIS, vIghro'mey HoH ghoghlIj}.</div><div><br></div><div>The thing I'm wondering though is whether for this to work, on the first sentence we would necessarily need to write the {SoH}, or whether we would only need the second one.</div></div>
</blockquote></div><div><br></div>If you're wondering this, then you haven't understood what's going on. <div><br></div><div>The entire point is that there is no new grammar here. {je} still conjoins two (or more) nouns by coming at the end.<br clear="all"><div><br></div>-- <br><div class="gmail_signature" dir="ltr">De'vID</div></div></div>
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