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<div class="moz-cite-prefix">On 4/10/2019 2:37 PM, Lieven L. Litaer
wrote:<br>
</div>
<blockquote type="cite"
cite="mid:e9958321-64ad-796e-7bc2-0eded7027118@gmx.de">Am
10.04.2019 um 18:47 schrieb SuStel:
</blockquote>
<br>
<blockquote type="cite"
cite="mid:e9958321-64ad-796e-7bc2-0eded7027118@gmx.de">
<br>
<blockquote type="cite" style="color: #000000;">English has a lot
of words whose meanings change if they've got a
<br>
preposition associated with them.
<br>
</blockquote>
<br>
Then why did Okrand write "reach" and not "reach for"? Or, the
other way
<br>
around: why was there any confusion about this word, if the
meaning
<br>
changes with the preposition? Okrand usually gives the prepostion
when
<br>
needed (as in "pay for"). <br>
</blockquote>
<p>He usually does now, but he wasn't so careful when writing TKD.
He started out by admitting that the definition given in TKD is
inadequate.<br>
</p>
<p>Maybe he had the <i>Star Trek</i> episode "The Way to Eden" in
mind. "I reach that, brother." "He is not Herbert. We reach."
(WARNING! Made-up <i>Star Trek</i> slang!)</p>
<p>Somebody ask Okrand how to say Herbert in Klingon!<br>
</p>
<pre class="moz-signature" cols="72">--
SuStel
<a class="moz-txt-link-freetext" href="http://trimboli.name">http://trimboli.name</a></pre>
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