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<div class="moz-cite-prefix">On 4/4/2019 1:05 PM, mayqel qunen'oS
wrote:<br>
</div>
<blockquote type="cite"
cite="mid:4jp5a5bv2cdr5ec945in9rjv.1554394648669@email.android.com">
<p dir="ltr" style="margin-top:0; margin-bottom:0;">In english you
say "someone", and this word doesn't have a plural form i.e.
"someones".</p>
<br>
<p dir="ltr" style="margin-top:0; margin-bottom:0;">On the other
hand, in greek we do have the plural form of the word "someone",
as we do have the plural form of "something".</p>
<br>
<p dir="ltr" style="margin-top:0; margin-bottom:0;">So, I can't
bring myself to understanding what's wrong with saying
vay'pu'/vay'mey.</p>
<br>
<p dir="ltr" style="margin-top:0; margin-bottom:0;">I'm not saying
we should do it; I'm saying that I can't *feel* why it would be
wrong.</p>
<br>
<p dir="ltr" style="margin-top:0; margin-bottom:0;">And ok; f***
greek and english too. Why wouldn't you understand the meaning
of vay'pu' or vay'mey, regardless of your native language ?</p>
</blockquote>
<p>Is it a question of understanding, or is it a question of how it
is correctly done? I <i>understand</i> you just fine if you say <b>vay'pu'.</b>
I don't know if it's the way Klingons do it. We haven't seen any
evidence for it.<br>
</p>
<pre class="moz-signature" cols="72">--
SuStel
<a class="moz-txt-link-freetext" href="http://trimboli.name">http://trimboli.name</a></pre>
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