<div dir="ltr"><div><br></div><div>Can everyone listen to the spoken sentence and report what they hear?</div><a href="https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=NZEQVw3uV9M&feature=youtu.be&t=44s">https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=NZEQVw3uV9M&feature=youtu.be&t=44s</a><br><div class="gmail_extra"><br></div><div class="gmail_extra">Admittedly, he speaks quickly and it's not absolutely clear either way. I think I hear {wI-}, but could be convinced otherwise. (I originally transcribed {DI-} because it's what in the written subtitles, and while listening to it my brain didn't register a difference between what I read and what I was hearing, so it's not that obviously mismatched.)</div><div class="gmail_extra"><br><div class="gmail_quote">On 5 October 2017 at 02:45, SuStel <span dir="ltr"><<a href="mailto:sustel@trimboli.name" target="_blank">sustel@trimboli.name</a>></span> wrote:<br><blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="margin:0px 0px 0px 0.8ex;border-left:1px solid rgb(204,204,204);padding-left:1ex">
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<div class="gmail-m_-5469912274153288285moz-cite-prefix">On 10/4/2017 6:17 PM, ghunchu'wI' 'utlh
wrote:<br>
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<pre>On Oct 4, 2017, at 3:32 PM, SuStel <a class="gmail-m_-5469912274153288285moz-txt-link-rfc2396E" href="mailto:sustel@trimboli.name" target="_blank"><sustel@trimboli.name></a> wrote:
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<pre>If they're allowed at all, there HAVE to be special circumstances, some special explanation that makes them stand apart from the first- and second-person prefixes, and you have no idea what that explanation might be.
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<pre><b class="gmail-m_-5469912274153288285moz-txt-star"><span class="gmail-m_-5469912274153288285moz-txt-tag">*</span>I<span class="gmail-m_-5469912274153288285moz-txt-tag">*</span></b> have an idea what that explanation might be. It generalizes the prefix trick to explain things like {tuQmoH} and other uses of {-moH} on already transitive verbs. All it says is that when the prefix appears to violate the rule of {rom}, it could be pointing to the "indirect object" beneficiary instead of the (direct) object. Usually the beneficiary is implied by the prefix and the object is explicit, but I also consider cases where the normal object is missing and the grammatical beneficiary can be stated in its place</pre>
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</span><p>Yes, this is Lieven's explanation as well. That Okrand has never
said. Which means when he said "When the indirect object... is
first or second
person, the pronominal prefix which normally indicates first or
second
person object may be used," he really meant "When the indirect
object... is a pronoun, the pronominal prefix may agree with that
pronoun instead of the direct object." There is no distinction
whatsoever between person. All pronouns may be prefix tricked. So
why did he specify first and second person pronouns? Twice? Why
were all his examples in that message only first and second
person? And with different numbers? The original question only
asked for second person.</p></div></blockquote></div><div class="gmail_extra"><br></div>There's no ambiguity in the sentence, in the sense that we can all understand {'oH DInob} to mean "we give them it" ("we give it to them"). It may be one of these cases where something's technically violating the rules, but everyone understands it, like saying "there's three men and a baby" instead of "there are...".<br clear="all"><div><br></div>-- <br><div class="gmail_signature">De'vID</div>
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